2 Peter 1: Private interpretations

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In discussions of the Bible, one often hears the following verse.

2 Peter 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. [kjv]

This verse is often used to say that one should not have their own interpretation of a scripture. This is true in principle. Is this what this verse is really saying? Of all the possible interpretations of a scripture, which one should be used? The implied but not explicitly stated guideline here is that one should use the interpretation already decided by the church? Let us investigate.

Here is the verse with the Greek and the Latin. Note that the Latin Vulgate was developed for use by the then developing Catholic Church.

2 Peter 1:20

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KJV: Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.

Greek: τουτο πρωτον γινωσκοντες οτι πασα προφητεια γραφης ιδιας επιλυσεως ου γινεται

Latin: hoc primum intellegentes quod omnis prophetia scripturae propria interpretatione non fit

There are several Latin words of interest.

Latin "propria" ≈ "own" as in private
Latin "interpretatione" ≈ "interpretation"
Latin "non" ≈ "not"

There are also several Greek words of interest.

"ιδίασ" (ee-THEE-as) ≈ "their" but in some cases can mean his or her
"επιλυσέως" (eh-pee-lee-SEH-os) ≈ "solution"
"ου" (u) ≈ "not"
"γίνεται" (Y-neh-teh) ≈ "become"

What is the end of this verse basically saying about it - the prophetic writings?

it is not of any private interpretation
it is not one's own interpretation
it is not their (the prophet's) own interpretation

Note that it could mean more than one of the above since they are not mutually exclusive (nor collectively exhaustive - it could mean something else).

Let us check context of verses before and after this verse.

2 Peter 1:19

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KJV: We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:

Greek: και εχομεν βεβαιοτερον τον προφητικον λογον ω καλως ποιειτε προσεχοντες ως λυχνω φαινοντι εν αυχμηρω τοπω εως ου ημερα διαυγαση και φωσφορος ανατειλη εν ταις καρδιαις υμων

What is the "light"?
What is the "dark place"?
What is the "day dawn"?
What is the "day star"?

2 Peter 1:21

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KJV: For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

Greek: ου γαρ θεληματι ανθρωπου ηνεχθη ποτε προφητεια αλλ ποτε αλλα υπο πνευματος αγιου φερομενοι ελαλησαν οι αγιοι απο θεου ανθρωποι

Consider the before and after. What is verse 20 saying?

The "holy men of God spake as they were moved". By whom was it moved?
They "were moved by the Holy Ghost".

Verse 21 ends chapter 1, but it is always good to check the beginning of the next chapter since the chapter divisions were added in the Middle Ages long after the scriptures were written and later translated into Latin.

2 Peter 2:1

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KJV: But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.

Greek: εγενοντο δε και ψευδοπροφηται εν τω λαω ως και εν υμιν εσονται ψευδοδιδασκαλοι οιτινες παρεισαξουσιν αιρεσεις απωλειας και τον αγορασαντα αυτους δεσποτην αρνουμενοι επαγοντες εαυτοις ταχινην απωλειαν

There were "false prophets". Did these have their own "solutions"?
There shall be "false teachers" (not prophets) who will "bring in damnable heresies". Will these heresies come from their own "solutions"?

Paul tells the Bereans the following.

Acts 17:11

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KJV: These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.

Greek: ουτοι δε ησαν ευγενεστεροι των εν θεσσαλονικη οιτινες εδεξαντο τον λογον μετα πασης προθυμιας το καθ ημεραν ανακρινοντες τας γραφας ει εχοι ταυτα ουτως