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The language spoken by Jesus
1. The language spoken by Jesus
There are various schools of though on whether Jesus spoke Aramaic or Greek. Most educated people in the Roman Empire studied and spoke Latin, Greek and a native language in their area of birth or location, such as Aramaic in Judea.
Many in Judea grew up speaking both from birth. It is likely that Jesus and the disciples knew and spoke both Aramaic and Greek and, perhaps, some Latin. Few could read Hebrew and it was no longer spoken.
Aramaic used the same Hebrew alphabet, without vowels, and with multiple letters having the same or similar sounds. Greek had vowels and pretty much one letter for one sound. Thus, learning to read or write Greek was much easier than reading or writing Aramaic. The inflections in Greek, like any language, are immediately learned by children without any study other than hearing.
2. Related topics
3. Matthew and Luke
1 Jesus teaches people
2 Matthew writes Gospel
3 Luke writes Gospel
Luke records and correctly reports what people remembered as to the meaning of what Jesus said, sometimes using other words. This often loses the additional meanings as recorded in Matthew.
4. Differences
Many of the differences between Matthew and Luke can be explained by the context in which each was written.
Jesus: Jew, spoke Aramaic and Greek.
Matthew: Jew, spoke Aramaic and Greek, eyewitness, took notes.
Luke: Greek, spoke Greek, interviewed eyewitnesses about their memory.
5. Jesus uses language to speak
Which of the following appear to be true? Check all that apply.
☐ Jesus spoke Aramaic
☐ Jesus spoke a Galilean dialect of Aramaic
☐ Jesus spoke Greek
☐ Jesus spoke Latin (language of the Romans)
Jesus appears to say a lot of things that have a play-on-word meaning in the Greek. If Jesus did not speak these in Greek, how did they get there? Did Matthew add them? Was it directed by the Holy Spirit. Discuss.
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Details are left as a future topic.
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6. Language of Jesus
It is possible that Jesus might have said some things in both Aramaic and Greek even repeating ideas at the same time in one, than another language.
It is also possible that Jesus might have used Greek when he wanted to use play on words, etc., that the religious establishment might not fully understand but that the common people might better understand.
Any play on words or puns have never had to fit existing grammar or spelling rules or even pronunciation rules. They only need to be close enough for others to understand (or grown at).
7. Jesus speaking
It appears that Jesus uses play-on-word meanings when he is speaking in front of the general public
and the religious authorities. Both Greek and Aramaic were spoken and understood by most everyone. The religious establishment appears to have spent a lot of time learning to read and write Hebrew (no longer spoken) and tended to look down on Greek. Therefore, they understood when Jesus used Greek but often did not follow the play-on-word sayings. Most of the general public, however, would have followed the play-on-words without difficulty.
8. Hebrew and Greek alphabets
Both Hebrew and Greek had numeric values for each letter. In Greek, some letters had been dropped since their sounds were not needed or were covered by other letters. Those dropped letters continued to be used for their numerical values (only).
Aramaic used the same
Hebrew alphabet, without vowels, and with multiple letters having the same or similar sounds.
Greek had vowels and pretty much one letter for one sound. Thus, learning to read or write Greek was much easier than reading or writing Aramaic. The inflections in Greek, like any language, are immediately learned by children without any study other than hearing.
9. Reading and writing Greek
Greek was written using uppercase letters and no spaces or punctuation.
To write Greek, one pretty much use the letters that made the sounds being pronounced and wrote them down.
To read Greek, one pretty much looked at the letters and said the sounds represented by each letter. Continued use made one more proficient in reading.
Over time, some Greek manuscripts changed according to how the Greek was pronounced which explains many (but not all) textual variations in the Greek texts. Eventually, the letters were not changed. As vowel sounds merged, markings were added so that someone unfamiliar with the words could pronounce them correctly.
10. 2 Peter 1:4 Common partakers
2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust. [kjv]
δι ων τα τιμια και μεγιστα ημιν επαγγελματα δεδωρηται ινα δια τουτων γενησθε θειας κοινωνοι φυσεως αποφυγοντες της εν τω κοσμω εν επιθυμια φθορας [gnt]
The English word "
partakers" from the modern Greek word
"κοινωνοί" (kee-no-NEE) ≈ "social" as in societal fellowship or community.
The term "
Koine" Greek means the common or social Greek language. In the same manner "
Vulgar" Latin is the common or social Latin language. And, in the same manner, in the time of Jesus, "
Aramaic" was the common or social Hebrew language.
11. 2 Peter 1:4
KJV: Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.
Greek: δι ων τα τιμια και μεγιστα ημιν και τιμια επαγγελματα δεδωρηται ινα δια τουτων γενησθε θειας κοινωνοι φυσεως αποφυγοντες της εν τω κοσμω εν επιθυμια φθορας
Latin: per quae maxima et pretiosa nobis promissa donavit ut per haec efficiamini divinae consortes naturae fugientes eius quae in mundo est concupiscentiae corruptionem
12. Aramaic hypothesis
Matthew 23:24 Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel. [kjv]
οδηγοι τυφλοι διυλιζοντες τον κωνωπα την δε καμηλον καταπινοντες [gnt]
This verse is the "
poster child" example of the "
Aramaic hypothesis" as the words used here can be associated with Aramaic words to support the idea that Jesus spoke Aramaic with a few Greek words. On close inspection, however, Jesus, as recorded by Matthew, makes some interesting Greek play on words. Once these are identified, those play on words fit well with other play on words in verses before and after this verse.
This claimed connection is somewhat misleading as both Greek words appear to have a Semitic origin. Thus, concluding that the original speech was in Aramaic and then translated into Greek is tenuous. If the words were spoken in Greek, they would still have an Aramaic or Semitic origin.
13. Abba: Son of the Father
The word "
abba" is used in the
GNT (Greek New Testament) in Greek but was not a Hebrew word. It was an Aramaic word. In the garden, before the arrest, trial, and crucifixion, Jesus says the following.
Mark 14:36 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt. [kjv]
και ελεγεν αββα ο πατηρ παντα δυνατα σοι παρενεγκε το ποτηριον τουτο απ εμου αλλ ου τι εγω θελω αλλα τι συ [gnt]
… Abba … calicem … [v]
The word "
abba" is the source of the English words
"abbot" and
"Abby".
The Latin term "
pappa" for "
daddy" came to denote the "
Pope" as in the "
Papal" authority, etc.
14. Hebrew for Babel
The Hebrew word
"בבל" (ba-vel) ≈ "Babel" as in the "
confusion" of languages that happened there. The corresponding Aramaic word is pronounced closer to "
Babel".
In English, one is said to "
babble" if one says unintelligible sounds that are somewhat like spoken language.
15. Translation difficulties
There are many translation difficulties.
Some of the original GNT appears to have spoken in Aramaic (common Hebrew of the time). It is unclear if it was ever written in Aramaic.
The GNT is then in Koine Greek.
The GNT was translated into the Latin Vulgate while the original Greek was often not available.
When the original Greek did became available, over a thousand years later, the Latin mindset effected the translation.
The Middle Ages mindset effected the translation of texts, including the KJV (King James Version).
The English in the KJV changed meaning over hundreds of years.
Some people then insist that the
KJV, as written, is inspired and inerrant.
16. Proverbs and parables
What is the difference between a "
parable" and a "
proverb"? It appears that the Hebrew/Aramaic has one word for this concept and that word can be translated into Greek as "
parable" or "
proverb".
"παραβολή" ≈ "saying, proverb"
"παροιμία" ≈ "saying, proverb"
It is possible that whoever did the Greek translation picked the Greek word that they thought best matched the original language, but the differences and implications are yet interesting (and left for another time and place).
17. End of page
